Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
08.06.2025 02:44
There's no rule.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Have you ever been humiliated in front of a group of girls and enjoyed it?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Ukraine Says It Attacked Crimean Bridge as Traffic Halted - Bloomberg.com
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Doesn't Musk hire Security for his Tesla dealerships?
What's (not “whats”) the rule?